1. Which of the following is not a branch of third part of maxillary artery?

A) Supraorbital aretry
B) Infraorbital
C) Sphenopalatine
D) Lesser palatine
Ans: A

2. Placenta is formed by
A) Chorion frondosum and decidua basalis
B) Decidua parietalis and decidua basalis
C) Syncytiotrophoblast and maternal chorion
D) Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotroploblast
Ans: A

3. Extraembryonic mesoderm is formed from
A) Tropoblast
B) Prechordal plate
C) Yolk sac
D) Aminotic fluid
Ans : C

4. Which tye of cells are found in pars nervosa pf pituitary gland
A) Acidophils
B) Basophils
C) Chromophobee
D) Pituicytes
Ans; D

5. RBC in embryonic life are formed in
A) Yolk sac
B) Bone marrow
C) Long bones
D) Liver
Ans: A

6. Intrinsic laryngeal muscles are derived from which brancheal arch
A) First
B) Second
C) Fourth
D) Sixth
Ans: D

7. Passavant ridge is made up of
A) palatopharyngeus
B) Stylopharyngeus
C) Salphingopharyngeus
D) Tensor palatani
Ans: A

8. Killians dehiscence is outpouching of
A) Oropharynx
B) Nasopharynx
C) Laryngopharynx
D) Trachea
Ans: C

9. Which of these is a tributary of the IJV
A) Inferior thyroid vein
B) Ant jugular vein
C) Superior thyroid vein
D) Retromandibular vein
Ans: C

10. Which of the following pass through the vena caval opening of diaphragm
A) Azygous vein
B) Right phrenic nerve
C) Left phrenic nerve
D) Thoracic duct
Ans; B

11. Father transmits the disease to all his daughters. Type of inheritance is
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X linked dominant
D) X linked recessive
Ans: C

12. Mother transmits the disease to all her children . Type of inheritance is
A) Autosomal
B) X linked recessive
C) X linked dominant
D) Mitichondrial
Ans: D

13. All are true about trigeminal nerve , expect :
a. Ganglion is located at apex of pertrous temporal bone
B orginates between pons and medulla
C supply all maxillary teeth
D supply all muscles of mastication
Ans: B

14. BMR is increased in all except
A) Hyperthyroid
B) Hypothyroid
C) Fever
D) Excercise
Ans: B

15. Which of the following hormones activates cAMP
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Parathyroid
D) Stomatostatin
Ans: B

16. Maximum contribution of colloidal osmotic pressure is by
A) Albumin
B) Globulin
C) Hemoglobin
D) Bicarbonate
Ans: A

17. Bilirubin is formed from metabolism of
A) Bile salts
B) Glucose
C) Heme
D) Cholestrol
Ans; C
18. Peripheral chemoreceptors are not sensitive to
A) Hypoxia
B) Hypercapnoea
C) Hypocapnoea
D) Dissolved H+ ions in blood
Ans: C

19. Which of the following type of cells are seen in Meissner and Myenteric plexus in the small intestine
A) Sympathetic
B) Sympathetic and para sympathetic
C) Parasympathetic
D) Sensory
Ans: B

20. Migratory motor complexes are controlled by
A) CCK
B) Gastin
C) Motilin
D) Secretin
Ans; C

21. What is true about hyperpolarization of membrane in a neuron conducting impulse
A) It facilitates the neuron
B) It inhibits the neuron
C) Does not facilitate or inhibit the neuron
D) Neuron is depressed for longer time
Ans: B

22. Plateau phase in action potential is seen in cells of
A) SA node
B) AV node
C) Purkinje fibres
D) Atrial fibres

23. Alpha waves are seen in
A) Non REM sleep
B) REM sleep
C) Wide awake state
D) Awake and focused state
Ans: C

24. Copper containg enzyme in collagen synthesis:
a. Lysyl hydroxylase
B. Lysyl oxidase
C. Procollagen hydroxylase
D. Procollagen peptidase
Ans : B

25 Method to map genes located on a particular locus in a chromosome :
A. Linkage analysis
B. Segregation analysis
C. Genomic imprinting
D. Genomic wide analysis
Ans: A

26. Sterilization cycle uses:
a. 121 degrees celsius, 15 psi , 15 min
B. 160 degrees celsius,20 psi 15 minutes
C. 170 degrees celsius, 25 psi, 10 minutes
D. 180 degrees celsius,15 psi , 15 min
Ans : A

27 Correct order of phases in bacterial growth curve:
A. Log,lag,stationery,decline
B. Stationery,log,lag,decline
C. Lag,log,stationery,decline
D. Decline, log, lag,stationery
Ans : C

28 Which of the following is true about streptococcus pneumoniae
A. Gram-ve diplococcic
B. Intracellular gram-ve anaerobe
C. Gram + ve coccobacilli
D. Gram + ve lanceolate dillococci
Ans: D

29 True regarding malaria :
A . Schizont are infective to mosquitoes
B. Trophozoites are infective to mosquitoes
C. Tissue phase is seen in p falciparum
D. Tissue phase is seen in p. Vivax
Ans : D

30. Method of sterilization for fiberoptic laryngoscope :
A. Alcohol
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Autoclave
D. Hypochlorite
Ans: B

31. Which of the following is not used as disinfectant for skin preparation due to its irritation potential
A. Hypochlorite
B. Alchohol
C. Hexidine
D. Cyclopropane
Ans : A

32. Which of these is true about antibodies
A. IgM is an acute phase reactant
B. Secretory part of IgA is synthesised by plasma cells
C. IgM is seen in secondary response
D. IgE mediated delayed hypersensitivity
Ans: A

33. Lowest concentration of HIV is found in
A. Semen
B. Saliva
C. Blood
D. CSF
Ans: B

34. In poorly controlled Type I diabetes most common infection is
A. Mucormycosis
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Cryptococcus
D. Rhinosporidosis
Ans: A

35. Fungus affecting reticular endothelial system
A. Mucormycosis
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Histioplasma capsulatum
D. Rhizopus
Ans: C

36. Pencillin induced hypersensitivity is
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
Ans. B

37. True regarding selective COX 2 inhibitors compared to non selective NSAIDS is
A. Equivalent renal toxicity
B. Does not have anti pyrectic effect
C. Higher incidence of GI blood
D. Thromboembolism incidence is increased
Ans: A

38. Which of these is a selective COX 2 inhibitor
A. Celecoxib
B. Ketorolac
C. Indomethacin
D. Aspirin
Ans. A

39. Frontal headache is caused by which of the following
A. Acetaminophen
B. Meproxicam
C. Ketorolac
D. Indomethacin
Ans. D

40. Long acting drug due to enterohepatic circulation
A. Sulindac
B. Piroxicam
C. Aspirin
D. Phenylbutazone
Ans. B

41. Which of the following can be safely given in a kidney patient
A. Ketorolac
B. Ibuprofen
C. Fluconazole
D. Acetyl salicylic acid
Ans. C

42. Drug of choice in a patient with renal disorder and Vancomycin resistant MRSA:
A. Linezolid
B. Erythromycin
C. Teicoplanin
D. Daptomycin
Ans. A

43. Main disadvantage of opioid analgesic
A. Dry cough
B. Diarrhea
C. Mydriasis
D. Urinary retention
Ans. D

44. Nonadrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants (NaSSAs)
A. Duloxitine
B. Tianeptine
C. Duberoxitine
D. Mirtazapine
Ans. D

45. Efficiency of carbamazepine reduces with time due to
A. Physiological dependence
B. Psychological dependence
C. Antagonism
D. Increased drug reaction
Ans. D

46.28 yrs old female on oral cobtraceptives was given tetracycline for treatment of chronic periodontitis by a dentist. After 2 months she became pregnany. What is the reason of contraceptive failure
A. Tetracycline induces metabolism of OCD
B. Tetracycline inhibits enterohepatic circulation causing increased excretion of OCD
C. Tetracycline inhibits metabolism of OCD
D. Tetracycline displaces OCD from plasma protein
Ans. B

47. 25 yr old asthmatic patient on theopylline is given ciprofloxacin by dentist. He developed dyspnoea and palpitations. What could be the cause:
A. Ciprofloxacin reduces plasma protein binding of theophylline
B. Ciprofloxacin inhibits metabolism of theophylline
C. Ciprofloxacin increases metabolism of theophylline
D. Ciprofloxacin displaces receptor binding of theophylline
Ans. B

48. 40 yr old patient was taking warfarin 4gms for DVT prophylaxis. She was given ceftriaxone 8hrs i.v for a dental infection. Later the lady experienced episode of vaginal bleeding and darkening of urine. What is the cause?
A. Gut flora was inhibited by ceftriaxone
B. Ceftriaxone is an enzyme inducer
C. Both have additional thrombocytopenic effect
D. Ceftriaxome inhibits metabolism of warfarin
Ans. C

49. Orange sweat is seen in
A. Rifampin
B. INH
C. Thiacetazone
D. Pyrazinamide
Ans. A

50. Flucanazole resistant candidiasis in a HIV positive patient is treated by
A. Nystatin
B. Amphoterin B
C. Ketaconazole
D. Clotrimazole
Ans. B

51. Dose of epinephrine given for anaphylaxis
A. 0.5mg 1:1000 sc
B. 0.5mg 1:100000 iv
C. 0.5mg 1:1000 iv
D. 0.5mg 1:100000 sc
Ans. A

52. Which of the following is vasoselective drug
A. Ipratropium bromide
B. Cyclopantolate
C. Tolterodine
D. Adrenaline
Ans. C

53. Type C category of drug in pregnancy
A. Amoxicillin
B. Lignocaine
C. Corticosteroid
D. Erythromycin
Ans. C

54. Which of these is increased in Fe deficiency anemia
A. Serum ferritin
B. Serum transferrin
C. Serum iron
D. Total iron binding capacity
Ans. D

55. In a case of sporadic ataxia, what lab investigation is not done
A. Serum folate
B. Vit E
C. Vit B1
D. TSH
Ans. A

56. Irreversible dementia is caused due to
A. Subarachanoid hemorrhage
B. Wilsons disease
C. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
D. Vascular dementia
Ans. D

57. Positive nitrogen balance is seen in
A. Pregnancy
B. Kwashiorkar
C. Fever
D. Marasmus
Ans. A

58. RAS gene is inhibited by
A. Cyclic GMP
B. Adenosine triphosphate
C. CD Kinase
D. GTPase activating protein
Ans. D

59. Which of the following is assosciated with exudative effusion
A. CHF
B. Liver cirrhosis
C. Inflammation
D. Malignancy
Ans. C&D

60. Lab investigation of choice for checking extrinsic pathway
A. Prothrombin time
B. Bleeding time
C. Clotting time
D. Activated partial thromboplastin time
Ans. A

61. A patient came to the hospital with kidney damage. Blood smear showed thrombocytopenia and schistocytes. What do you suspect
A. Sjogrens syndrome
B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Tumor lysis syndrome
D. Lymphoma
Ans. B

62. Moat important step in management of acute diarrhea
A. Antibiotic therapy
B. Give antimotility drugs like loperamide
C. Fluid replacement
D. Give prokinetic agents like metoclopramide
Ans. C

63. Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults
A. Minimal change disease
B. Membrane proliferative glomerulonephritis
C. Focal segmental glomerulonephritis
D. Diffuse glomerulonephritis
Ans. C

64. Sharply angulated ribs with or without nodules with backward position of sternum is known as
A. Hutchinsons sign
B. Rickety rosary
C. Trail sign
D. Scorbutic rosary
Ans. D

65. Ulthoff sign is seen in
A. Parkinsonism
B. Cerebral palsy
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Alzheimers disease
Ans. C

66. In classification of Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA), a severe case is defined when the number of episodes of apnoea during sleep exceed.
A. 25/hour
B. 10/hour
C. >30/hour
D. 15/hour
Ans. C

67. Which of these describes permanent dilatation and distortion of bronchioles
A. Emphysema
B. Bromchiolitis
C. Asthma
D. Bronchiectasis
Ans. D

68. Abuse of which of the following is the most common cause of seizures
A. Short term benzodiazepines
B. Short term barbiturates
C. Opioids
D. Cocaine
Ans. D

69. Quincke sign seen in aortic regurgitation is
A. Cyclic erythema and pale apperarance on pressing nail bed
B. Head movement with pulse
C. Pistol shot sound over femoral artery
D. Prominent dorsalis pedis
Ans. A

70. Ventricular septal defects showing reverse blood flow shunt. This sign is known as
A. Eisenmenger anomaly
B. Total/partial anomalous pulmonary venous return
C. Patent ductus arteriosus(PDA)
D. Teratology of fallot
Ans. A

71. Not a characteristic of white infract
A. Occurs due to arterial obstruction
B. It can be transiently red
C. Seen in soft tissue
D. Involves wedge shaped area with apex pointing towards arterial obstruction
Ans. C

72. In a mechanically ventilated patient in ICU which of the following does not show improvement in prognosis
A. Control of histamine
B. DVT prophylaxis
C. Daily portable chest x ray
E. Sedation protocol
Ans. C

73. Which is not seen in Cushing’s syndrome
A. Poor wound healing
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Osteoporosis
Ans. B

74. Blood transfusion reaction occurs due to
A. ABO incompatibility
B. Due to proteins
C. Anaphylactic reaction
D. Complement mediated
Ans. A

75. Most common tumor seen in HIV
A. Lymphoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Fibroma
Ans. A

76. Pilonidol sinus contains
A. Dead hair
B. Necrotic tissue
C. Dead bone
D. Nasal epithelium
Ans. A

77. N butyl cyanoacrylate is used for
A. Hemostasis
B. Skin apposition
C. Disinfection
D. Tissue regeneration
Ans. B

78. Calcitonin secretion is increased in which of the following thyroid malignancies
A. Follicular carcinoma
B. Medullary carcinoma
C. Anaplastic carcinoma
D. Papillary carcinoma
Ans. B

79. Which of the following ulcers have punched out margins
A. Syphilitic
B. Tuberculous
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Basal cell carcinoma
Ans. A

80. Ulcer with rolled out everted margin
A. Tuberculous
B. Syphilitic
C. Traumatic
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Ans. D

81. Safest site for intramuscular injection in case of children
A. Vasular lateralis
B. Deltoid
C. Gluteus maximus
D. Ventrogluteal
Ans. A

82. Most common site for intramuscular injection in case of adults
A. Vastus lateralis
B. Deltoid
C. Gluteus medius
D. Gluteus maximus
Ans. B

83. Which of the following is formed by spray atomization and chemical precipitation of molten gold
A. Mat gold
B. Granular gold
C. Gold foil
D. Crystalline gold
Ans. B

84. When Alginate is mixed with tap water having high calcium sulfate and magnesium, what happens
A. Retardation of setting retardation
B. Permanent deformation of alginate
C. Acceleration of setting reaction
D. Weakened stone dies
Ans; C

85. Which of the following components of flux helps in removal of passivating layer
A. Boric acid
B. Borate
C. Fluoride
D. Silicate
Ans. C

86. Brinnell hardness number is directly proportional to which of the following
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Modulus of resilience
C. Ductility
D. Tensile strength
Ans. D

87. Which type of porosity is seen in case of rapid solidification of molten alloy
A. Subsurface porosity
B. Suck back porosity
C. Microporosity
D. Localized shrinkage porosity
Ans. C

88. Gas entrapment within the mold leads to which type of porosity in casting
A. Pin hole porosity
B. Microporosity
C. Suck back porosity
D. Back pressure porosity
Ans. D

89. Which property of composites is most affected by the suze and number of fillers
A. Polymerization shrinkage
B. Thermal contraction
C. Thermal expamsion
D. Water sorption
Ans. A

90. Diluent used in BisGMA based composites
A. 4META
B. TEGDMA
C. UDMA
D. CDMA
Ans. B

91. Which of the following shows polymerization by ring opening
A. Silorane
B. UDMA
C. TEGMA
D. BISGMA
Ans. A

92. Cementation failure of a prosthesis cemented with zinc polycarboxylate occurs at
A. Cement tooth interface
B. Cement and prosthesis interface
C. Between cement layer
D. In the prosthesis itself
Ans. B

93. High fusing ceramic according to classification of porcelain is
A. >1300°C
B. <850°C
C. 850-1150°C
D. 1150-1300°C
Ans. A

94. Transformation toughening of zirconia occurs due to change in phase from:
A. Tertagonal to monoclinic
B. Cubic to tetragonal
C. Monoclinic to tertagonal
D. Austenitic to martensitic
Ans:A

95. What will happen,when a stone cast is kept above 90* c :
A. Contraction due to conversion of dihydrate to hemihydrate
B. Disintegration into pieces
C. Expansion due to conversion of a hemihydrate into beta hemihydrate
D. No effect
Ans: A

96. During autoclaving burs are dipped in :
A. 4% sodium nitrate
B. 2% potassium nitrate
C. 2% sodium nitrite
D. 4% potassium nitrite
Ans. C

97. Shape of indenter in knoop hardness test
A. Square
B. Rhomboid
C. Oval
D. Rectangle
Ans. B

98. Rigidity is maximum with which material for major connector
A. Wrought gold alloy
B. Cobalt chrome alloy
C. Cast gold alloy
D. Gold palladium
Ans. B
99. Which investment shows high contraction due to loss of water and alcohol
A. Phosphate bonded investment
B. Mg bonded
C. Silicate bonded
D. Gypsum bonded
Ans. C

100. In comparison with the permanent mandibular canine, the permanent maxillary canine
A. Has a less prominent cingulum
B. Is shorter
C. Has a cusp tip more nearly centered over the root when viewed from the labial
D. Has a relatively longer crown
Ans. C

101. Primary teeth differ from permanent teeth in having
A. Bulbous crown contour
B. Shape variation is more
C. More cervical prominence
D. Thickness of enamel is more
Ans. B

102. Which of these is the penultimate tooth to erupt
A. Max 3rd molar
B. Max 2nd molar
C. Mand canine
D. Max 2nd premolar
Ans. B

103. Which tooth is erupted by 11-13 years
A. Max canine
B. Max 2nd molar
C. Max 2nd premolar
D. Mand 2nd premolar
Ans. A

104. Elevation found on tooth surface leading to occlusal developmental groove
A. Cusp
B. Tubercle
C. Fossa
D. Ridge
Ans. A

105. Major buffer system of saliva
A. Protein buffer
B. Carbonic acid & bicarbonate
C. Phosphate buffer
D. Albumin buffer
Ans. B

106. Calcified dentinal tubule wall has an inner lining termed as
A. Lamina lucida
B. Lamina densa
C. Lamina limitans
D. Lamina propria
Ans. C

107. Thin delicate membrane covering the entire crown of newly erupted tooth is called
A. Nasmyth’s membrane
B. Primary enamel cuticle
C. Secondary enamel cuticle
D. Rod sheath
Ans. A

108. Cusp of carabelli is a feature of which of these teeth
A. Max 1st molar
B. Mand molar
C. Max canine
D. Mand 2nd premolar
Ans. A

109. Transfer of metabolites in pulp is due to
A. Precapillaries
B. Sinusoidal capillaries
C. Fenestrated capillaries
D. Continuous capillaries
Ans. C

110. Which of these is not a type of occlusal morphology of mand 2nd premolar
A. Y
B. U
C. V
D. H
Ans. C

111. Which enzyme is seen in stratum intermedium
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Acid phosphatase
C. Hyluronidase
D. Collagenase
Ans. A

112. Which of these is used to assess possibility of dysplasia in a premalignant lesion
A. Cytokeratin 8
B. CK 19
C. PCMA
D. DNA ploidy
Ans. D

113. Ground glass appearance , brown tumors and hypercalcemia are seen
A. Hyperparathyroid
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Cherubism
Ans. A

114. Which of the following is a pseudo cyst
A. Nasolabial cyst
B. Globulomaxillary cyst
C. Traumatic cyst
D. Radicular cyst
Ans. C

115. Which of the following is true about Hypophosphatasia
A. Increased serum levels of acid phosphatase
B. Decreased serum levels of alkaline phosphatase
C. Impaired Ca absorption
D. Decreased urinary phosphoethanolamine
Ans. B

116. Multiple draining sinuses from the neck with sulphur granules is a feature of
A. Actinomycosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Staphlococcal
D. Streptococcal
Ans. A

117. Natal and neonatal teeth are notj associated with
A. Downs syndrome
B. Riga fede disease
C. Hallermann strieff syndrome
D. Ellis van creveld syndrome
Ans. A

118. Which of these is a type pf scleroderma
A. Pierre robin syndrome
B. Gardeners syndrome
C. Parry romberg syndrome
D. Merkelssom rosenthal syndrome
Ans. C

119. Perioral freckles with risk of breast cancer and intestinal cancer is a feature of
A. Cowden syndrome
B. Crohns disease
C. Peutz jeghers syndrome
D. Gardners syndrome
Ans. C
120. Which of the following is true about crohn”s disease
A. Warthim finkeldy giant cells
B. Non caseating granuloma
C. Touton giant cells
D. Oral melanosis
Ans. B

121. Giant cell tumor is similar to giant cell granuloma in all of the following features except
A. Uniform distribution of giant cells
B. Presence of IL and inflammatory cells
C. Equal number of nuclei in giant cells
D. Small foci of spindle shaped cells
Ans. C

122. What is true about traumatic ulcerative granuloma with stromal eosinophilia(TUGSE)
A. Metastasis of brain
B. Metastasis of kidney
C. Heals rapidly after biopsy
D. Spreads through nerves
Ans. C

123. Which of these is used to check vitality of cells in oral mucositis/ precancerous lesions
A. Congo red exclusion test
B. Toluidine blue test
C. Tryptan blue exclusion test
D. Ketone exclusion test
Ans. C

124. Lacrimation is seen on mastication. Which nerve is involved
A. Auriculotemporal
B. Facial
C. Trigeminal
D. Glossopharyngeal
Ans. A

125. A 40 year old female complaints of pain on the cheek which triggers on chewing food and in between she has no pain. Diagnosis is
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Sphenopalatine neuralgia
C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
D. Giant cell arteritis
Ans. A

126. Ptyalism is seen in
A. Freys syndrome
B. Sjogrens syndrome
C. Mental retardation
D. Horner syndrome
Ans. C

127. Which of the following anomaly needs consideration in restorative treatment
A. Dens in dente
B. Dilaceration
C. Taurodontism
D. Enameloma
Ans. A

128. Achondroplasia is caused by which gene
A. GNAS1
B. FGFR3
C. ROR2
D. CBFA1
Ans. B

129. Most common tumor of salivary gland
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Ans. A

130. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a multi organ failure due to deficiency of
A. Fe
B. Co
C. Se
D. Zn
Ans. D

131. Which is the most common manifestation of recurrent HSV1 infection
A. Herpetic whitlow
B. Recurrent herpes labialis
C. Herpes simplex
D. Chicken pox
Ans. B

132. A 40 year old lady reported with 1.5cm crater like ulcer on the palate for last 1 week which is rapidly growing , aggressive, ulcerative and perforating the hard palate is suggestive of
A. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
B. Gumma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Wegners granulomatosis
Ans. A

133. Osteogenesis imperfecta occurs due to defects in synthesis of
A. Myosin
B. Collagen
C. Elastin
D. Fibroblast
Ans. B

134. A 25 year old patient reports with swelling since last 2 months which increases while eating food and becomes painful. O/E it is palpated by bimanual palpation. Diagnosis is
A. Plunging ranula
B. Submandibular cyst
C. Submandibular sialadenitis
D. Submandibular gland tumor
Ans. C

135. In a case having multiple caries, peripheral neuropathy and salivary gland aplasia. Lab investigation of choice is
A. Serum folate
B. Anti Ro/La
C. Serum iron
D. Alkaline phosphatase
Ans. B

136. Best method of diagnose non odontogenic pain
A. Percussion of teeth
B. Following a sequential procedure of history recording, step by step testing and evaluation of cause
C. Radiographic analysis
D. Visual and tactile method
Ans. B

137. Maxillary denture is retained by a thin film of saliva between tissue and the denture. What is this force called
A. Force of adhesion
B. Force of cohesion
C. Surface adherence
D. Interfacial tension
Ans. D

138. Most common organism responsible for denture stomatitis
A. Candida albicans
B. M tuberculosis
C. Cryptococcus
D. Mucor
Ans. A

139. Purpose of transparent acrylic template in case of immediate denture
A. Socket healing
B. Trimming of jagged bone margins
C. Impression taking
D. Conditioning of socket
Ans. B

140. Which of the following is a characteristic of a broad PPS
A. 60 degree with V shaped arch
B. 45 degree with moderate mobility
C. Shallow palate with less muscle movement
D. Horizontal palate with minimal muscular activity
Ans. C

141. When an interim obturator planned in a case of maxillary surgery , it is given :
A. 2-4 months after surgery
B. Before surgery
C. 2-4 after surgery
D.4-6 months after surgery
Ans : C

142. Hollow round bevel is basically:
A. Knige edge
B. Shoulder
C.Shoulder with bevel
D. Deep camfer
Ans: D

143. Maximum broad coverage of denture bearing are provides :
A. Realeff effect
B. Snow shoe effect
C. Stability
D. Occlusal clearance
Ans. B

144. Finish line of choice for acrylic jacket crown
A. Radial shoulder
B. Chamfer
C. Shoulder with bevel
D. Exaggerated chamfer
Ans. A

145. Type of joint between major and minor connector in RPD
A. Butt joint
B. Acute
C. Obtuse
D. Acrylic forms the joint
Ans. A

146. Major drawback of metal denture base
A. Diificult to reline
B. Increased weight
C. Acrylic does not bind to it
D. Can cause injury to soft tissue
Ans. A

147. Identify the pontic design used for replacement of missing incisors shown in the picture
A. Modified ridge lap
B. Ovate
C. Conical
D. Saddle
Ans. A

148. Major draw of mandibular single CD opposing the natural dentition
A. Abrasion of natural teeth
B. Fracture of mandibular denture
C. Difficulty in achieving bilateral balanced occlusion
D. Abrasion of the acrylic teeth
Ans. C

149. Peripheral flange is seen in which of these implants
A. Root form implant
B. Basal implant
C. Subperiosteal implant
D. Extraoral implant
Ans. D

150. Minimum bone width required for 3.7mm implant placement
A. 6mm
B. 7mm
C. 8mm
D. 9mm
Ans. A

151. Direct connection between bone and body of the implant at microscopic level is
A. Osteoinduction
B. Osteoconduction
C. Osseointegration
D. Osteogenesis
Ans. C

152. Which is an indication for immediate placement of implant
A. Suppuration
B. Cellulitis
C. Periodontal breakdown
D. Less bone apical to socket
Ans. C

153. Most common cause of overcontoured crown restorations
A. Technician adds more bulk
B. Under preparation of tooth
C. Over preparation of tooth
D. Oversized die
Ans. B

154. Type of bacteria found in pulpitis
A. Anaerobic mixed infection
B. Gram positive
C. Gram negative
D. Polymicrobial facultative anaerobic
Ans. D

155. According to Kim et al Classification Class III isthmus indicates
A. Incomplete isthmus with a faint communication between two canals
B. Complete isthmus with two canals with a definite connection between them
C. A very short complete isthmus between two canals
D. A complete or incomplete isthmus between three or more canals
Ans. C

156. What will happen if MTA is mixed for more than 4 minutes
A. Compressive strength decreases
B. Fastens setting time
C. Apical Barrier formation is defective
D. Dehydration of mass occurs
Ans. D

157. A composite restoration is to be done in case of a bleached tooth. Maximum bond strength will be achieved when composite is done after
A. 1 day
B. 1 hour
C. 2 weeks
D. 1 week
Ans. D

158. Laser used for dentin hypersensitivity acts by
A. Sealing of tubules
B. Obliteration of tubules
C. Precipitation of colloid in tubules
D. Transient reduction in action potential mediated by C fibres in pulp
Ans. D

159. A patient complains of pain in tooth on taking hot food, the pain subsides on taking cold. Diagnosis is
A. Reversible pulpitis
B. Internal resorption
C. Partial pulp necrosis
D. Traumatic injury
Ans. C

160. Most obvious clinical sign in concussion is
A. Tenderness on percussion
B. Change in color
C. Bleeding
D. Mobility
Ans. A

161. Mid treatment flare up is most common in
A. Traumatic injury
B. Pretreatment antibiotic is not given
C. RCT of vital teeth
D. RCT of non vital teeth
Ans. D

162. Which of these instrument is not used in obturation
A. Barbed broach
B. Plugger
C. Spreader
D. Lentulospiral
Ans. A

163.C factor is highest in which of the following
A. Class II cavity
B. Class III cavity
C. Class IV cavity
D. Class V cavity
Ans. D

164. Second digit in 4 digit instrument formula indicates
A. Blade length
B. Blade angle
C. Primary cutting edge angle
D. Blade width
Ans. C

165. Which of the these is not an absolute indication to mount orthodontic study models on articulator
A. To record the excursive movements of mandible
B. Surgical planning
C. Class II case with severe overjet of 14mm
D. To see and correct Cr-Co discrepancy
Ans. C

166. Most favourable for reinforcement of anchorage is
A. Conical roots
B. Shifting centre of resistanace apically
C. Tooth out of occlusion
D. Tooth with intact proximal contacts
Ans. D

167. When force is applied through center of resistance of tooth which of the following occurs
A. Rotation
B. Translation
C. Tipping
D. Torquing
Ans. B

168. Best method to retain a corrected maxillary canine rotation
A. Supracrestal fibrotomy
B. Overcorrection
C. Permanent retention
D. Long term removable retainer
Ans. A

169. Model diagnosis setup for planning clear aligners in 1945 was given by
A. Rickets
B. Tweed
C. Angle
D. Kesling
Ans. D

170. Best time to modify growth is
A. Early mixed dentition
B. Late mixed dentition
C. Primary dentition
D. Permanent dentition
Ans. B

171. W arch is used for treatment of
A. Anterior crossbite
B. Posterior crossbite
C. Openbite
D. Deepbite
Ans. B

172. 12 yr old patient comes with retained primary mandibular second molar and radiograph shows congenitally missing second premolar. Most conservatively approach would be
A. Extraction of 2nd molar and allowing the rest to migrate in its position
B. Extraction of 2nd molar and transplantation of 3rd molar in its place
C. Extraction of 2nd molar and giving a bridge
D. Retain the 2nd molar with minimum proximal contact stripping
Ans. D

173. Diagnostic aid used for measuring transverse discrepancy and vertical facial dimensions
A. PA ceph
B. Lateral ceph
C. OPG
D. Occipitomental
Ans. A

174. Katz classification is based on
A. Canine relation
B. Premolar relation
C. Incisor relation
D. Molar relation
Ans. B

175. According to which theory, thumb sucking habit is due to deep emotional influences
A. Palermo theory
B. Freudian theory
C. Operant conditioning theory
D. Classic conditioning theory
Ans. B

176. Plane of reference used in transverse direction in WITS analysis
A. Frankfort horizontal plane
B. Sella nasion plane
C. Functional occlusal plane
D. Palatal plane
Ans. C

177. Tanaka Johnson analysis uses width of which teeth to estimate the width of maxillary canine and premolars
A. Mandibular incisors
B. Maxillary incisors
C. Mandibular molars
D. Maxillary molars
Ans. A

178. Which of these is not promising soft tissue investigation
A. Poor man cephalometry
B. Barium meal
C. Stereophotogrammetry
D. Tc scan
Ans. C

179. Which of these is an indicatiom for formocresol pulpotomy
A. Inflammation restricted to coronal pulp
B. Uncontrollable hemorrhage from pulp
C. Inflammation extending to radicular pulp
D. Necrotic pulp
Ans. A

180. Pulpotomy comes under which level of prevention
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
Ans. C

181. What is the reason for longer etching time required in case of children
A. Less cooperation in the procedure
B. Denser enamel in case of children
C. Enamel is aprismatic and wavy in orientation
D. Widely spread enamel rods in oblique orientation
Ans. C

182. Sequence of teeth affected in children with high caries susceptibility
A. Maxillary incisors, maxillary molars, mandibular molars, mandibular incisors
B. Mandibular molars, maxillary incisor, maxillary molars, mandibular incisors
C. Mandibular incisors, maxillary incisors, mandibular molars, maxillary molars
D. Mandibular incisors, mandibular molars, maxillary molars, maxillary incisors
Ans. A

183. A child behaves inappropriately during his dental visit. In response the dentist sends the mother outside the operatory. This kind of behaviour management is termed as
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Negative reinforcement
C. Punishment
D. Omission
Ans. D

184. Which of the following is most susceptible to gingival breakdown
A. Interdental col
B. Interdental papila
C. Gingival sulcus
D. Free gingiva
Ans. A
185. Poor prognosis of furcation involvement
A. Mandibular 1st molar
B. 2nd maxillary premolar
C. 1st maxillary premolar
D. 1st mandibular premolar
Ans. C

186. Which of the following PDL fibres prevent extrusion of tooth
A. Alveolar crest fibres
B. Horizontal fibres
C. Transseptal fibres
D. Oblique fibres
Ans. A

187. Which of the following is available in the form of encapsulated microsphere
A. Tetracycline
B. Metronidazole
C. Minocycline
D. Doxycycline
Ans. C

188. Which of the following is true regarding chlorhexidine gluconate
A. Active against negative organisms
B. Causes brown staining of teeth
C. It is bacteriostatic in action
D. It causes sensitivity of teeth
Ans. B

189. Primary etiological factor for aggressive periodontitis
A. M.tuberculosis
B. Plaque accumulation with increased filamentous bacteria
C. Hypersensitivity to bacterial antigens
D. Reduced immune response of the host
Ans. D

190. Bone defect in aggressive periodontitis compared to chronic periodontitis
A. Wider
B. Shorter
C. Longer
D. Is same
Ans. C

191. Not a part of RED complex
A. A.Acetemcomitans
B. P.gingivalis
C. P.denticola
D. P.forsythus
Ans. A

192. Which of the following is a secondary colonizer
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Campylobacter
D. Actinomyces
Ans. C

193. Which of these causes maximum amount of connective tissue damage leading to bone loss
A. Supragingival attached plaque
B. Subgingival plaque
C. Subgingival unattached plaque
D. Subgingival plaque attached to epithelium
Ans. D

194. Initial sign of pheytoin induced gingival enlargement
A. Bleeding from gingiva on probing
B. Pale and fibrotic gingiva
C. Interdental enlargement of papilla
D. Increased sulcus depth on probing
Ans. C

195. After periodontal flap surgery when is the patient recalled
A. 2 weeks
B. 1 week
C. 4 weeks
D. 4 months
Ans. B

196. Epithelial attachment to root surface via hemidesmosomes occurs how much time after periodontal surgey?
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 1 week
D. 2 months
Ans. C

197. Which of the following is true about Ashleys flap
A. Palatal pedicle
B. Buccally displaced
C. Buccal pedicle
D. Free flap
Ans. A
198. Osteotome diffes from chisel by the following means
A. Bi beveled
B. Uni beveled
C. Curved shank
D. Sharp cutting edge
Ans. A

199. Difficulty score for a Mesioangular Class II position C mandibular third molar is
A. 6
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Ans. A

200. Visor osteotomy is used for
A. Maxillary retrognathism
B. Mandibular prognathism
C. Ridge augmentation
D. Sinus augmentation
Ans. C

201. Dautery procedure for recurrent dislocations of condyle leads to
A. Removal of barrier
B. Formation of barrier
C. Ligament is streched
D. Interference with coronoid movement
Ans. B

202. Maximum dose of lignocaine that can be given without adrenaline
A. 2mg/kg body wt
B. 4.4mg/kg body wt
C. 6.5mg/kg body wt
D. 7mg/kg body wt
Ans. B

203. For chemical cauterization in treatment of odontigenic keratocyst which solution is used
A. Hypochlorite
B. Alcohol
C. Carnoys solution
D. Acetic acid
Ans. C

204. Antibiotic of choice in odontogenic space infection
A. Narrow spectrum
B. Broad spectrum
C. Antimycotic
D. Bacteriostatic
Ans. B

205. Most common side effect of long term heavy dose of carbamazepine
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Fluid retention
C. Renal toxicity
D. Gingival hyperplasia
Ans. A

206. Surgery for lip correction in Bilateral CLP is done at
A. 18 months
B. 2-3 months
C. 4-5months
D. At birth
Ans. C

207. Unilateral Cleft Lip and Palate (UCLP) is repaired at
A. 18 months of both lip and palate
B. 4-5 months for soft palate and 18 months for lip and hard palate
C. 4-5 months for soft palate and lip and 18 months for hard palate
D. 4-5 months for lip and 18 months for soft and hard palate
Ans. C

208. Pterygoid trismus is caused due to which nerve block
A. Inferior alveolar
B. Lingual
C. Posterior superior alveolar
D. Buccal
Ans. A

209. Which of these is a computer controlled local anesthesia delivery system
A. WAND
B. TENS
C. GATE
D. Infiltration
Ans. A

210. Heimlichs maneuver in infants is done for
A. Foreign body obstruction due to swallowing
B. Mandibular fracture reduction
C. Foreign body obstruction due to inhalation
D. Maxillary fracture reduction
Ans. C

211. What is the basis of naming of plate screw system(1.2,1.7,2.5,2.7)
A. Thickness of plate
B. Thread diameter of screw
C. Core diameter
D. Length od screw
Ans. A

212. Most common site of mandibular fracture
A. Angle
B. Body
C. Condyle
D. Ramus
Ans. C

213. First radiographic sign of osteomyelitis
A. Blurring of trabeculae
B. Widening of PDL
C. Loss of vascularity
D. Subperiosteal bone deposition
Ans. A

214. Radiographic appearance of Hypophosphatasia
A. Ghost teeth
B. Floating teeth
C. Shell teeth
D. Cemental thickening
Ans. C

215. Charge transferred across rows of detector in a ‘Bucket brigade’ fashion is seen in
A. CMOS
B. CCD
C. Flat panel detector
D. PSP
Ans. B

216. Difference in alveolar crest level and radiograph is
A. 0-2
B. 0-1.8
C. 0-1.6
D. 1-1.5
Ans. C

217. Best radiograph to view fracture of condyle
A. Reverse Townes view
B. Submentovertex
C. OPG
D. Occipitomental view
Ans. A

218. Which property of X ray is utilized in intensifying screen
A. Bio chemical
B. Biological
C. Chemical
D. Physical
Ans. D

219. What is the effect on radiograph if there are scratches on intensifying screen
A. Dark spots on radiograph
B. No effect
C. Light spots on radiograph
D. Reticulation in the radiograph
Ans. C

220. What is the role of Potassium bromide and benzotriazole in developer
A. Initiator
B. Activator
C. Restrainer
D. Preservative
Ans. C

221. MRI sequence used to assess soft tissue pathology is
A. T1W
B. T2W
C. Proton density
D. Either T1 or T2
Ans. B

222. Which of these structures hinders in imaging the roots of maxillary molars
A. Zygoma and zygomatic process of maxilla
B. Orbital process of zygoma
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Palatine bone
Ans. A
223. Main reason why ameloglyphics not recommended in forensic odontology
A. Difficulty in sampling
B. Difficulty in interpretation
C. Course taken by the enamel rods vary at different levels of the enamel
D. Easily destructible enamel
Ans. C

224. Dentin transluency as a factor of age estimation was not used by
A. Bang and Ramm
B. Schlour and Massler
C. Acharya and Vinni
D. Johanson
Ans. B

225. The proportion of the population which is included in the study sample is called as
A. Sampling frame
B. Sampling fraction
C. Target population
D. Reference population
Ans. B

226. Which of the following has got the highest fluoride content
A. Fluroprotector
B. Acidulated phosphate fluoride
C. Casein phosphopeptide
D. Duraphat
Ans. D

227. In case of confounding variable which type of association is seen between disease and factor
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Temporal
D. Spurious
Ans. D

228. Which of the following tests is applied in case of sample size>30 which is following normal distribution
A. Student T test
B. Z test
C. Mann whitney test
D. Chi square test
Ans. B

229. Ability of test to correctly identify those who have disease
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Accuracy
D. Reliability
Ans. A

230. Which of the following is true about epidemological survey as compared to clinical trial
1. Sample size small
2. Cross sectional and longitudinal approach
3. Dental indices are used
4. Control and experimental group
A. 1,2&3
B. 2,3
C. 1,4
D. All are true
Ans. B

231. Reference ages for pathfinder survey
A. 6yrs,12yrs,35-44yrs,65-75yrs
B. 5yrs,12yrs,35-44yrs,65-75yrs
C. 7yrs,12yrs,35-44yrs,65-75yrs
D. 3yrs,12yrs,35-44yrs,65-75yrs
Ans. B

232. A path finder survey for oral health needs to be done at 12 sites for 4 index age groups at each site. What should be the sample size for the survey
A. 300
B. 400
C. 1200
D. 1500
Ans. C

233. Integrated child development scheme (ICDS) in india comes under
A. Ministry of health and family welfare
B. Ministry of women and child development
C. Ministry of human resource and development
D. Ministry of home affairs
Ans. B

234. Sequence of contents in scientific report of oral health survey
A. Introduction, materials and methods, result, discussion
B. Introduction, aim, material and methods, results
C. Aim, materials and methods, result, conclusion
D. Review of literature, aim, methods and materials, results
Ans. C

235. Role of humectant in toothpaste
A. Retain moisture
B. Abrasive
C. Taste
D. Anti bacterial
Ans. A

236. Fluoride containing pit and fissure sealants come under which generation
A. I generation
B. II generation
C. III generation
D. IV generation
Ans. D

237. A person who assists the dentist in the clinic but is not allowed to treat patients independently is known as
A. Extended dental auxillary
B. Dental hygienist
C. Dental assistant
D. Dental therapist
Ans. C

238. When chlorate in water starts to disappear and free chlorine starts to appear. It is called
A. Break point
B. End point
C. Screen point
D. Flow point
Ans. A

239. Simplest commonly used method of measuring variation in a population is
A. Range
B. SD
C. Mean
D. Median
Ans. B

240. Ideal requirement of pit and fissure sealant is
A. Less volatility
B. Adequate working time
C. Moderate water solubility and dissolution
D. Thermal conductivity is higher than tooth
Ans. B